This should be the focus, not PJ running on the field. If that's ruled part of the play, the Gophers still have the ball and have a chance at points. That was an enormous call and I don't remember ever seeing it ruled that way before.
This should be the focus, not PJ running on the field. If that's ruled part of the play, the Gophers still have the ball and have a chance at points. That was an enormous call and I don't remember ever seeing it ruled that way before.
It was a dead ball foul and either way it’s Iowa’s ball
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I disagree, it’s a late hit. We have/had the ball. The penalty results in that play earning a first down. Makes no sense based on how it’s officiated every other time.
On 4th down, it hinges on whether the penalty occurred during the play or after the play (post-possession).
Should have been a personal foul on IA and a first down, then a Unsportsmanlike on PJ and march us 15 back. MN first down at the 22. We made many many mistakes but that one is on them.
The officials ruled both fouls were post-possession, which in this case meant it was after the whistle on a fourth down incompletion. Think of an illegal block on a QB after an interception, that is no longer a roughing the passer penalty, penalty is enforced but possession change still stands.
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Correct.
Pittsburgh would have gotten a first down after Garrett hit Rudolph regardless of when the ball hit the ground. We got effed. Much like the spot that was six feet off.
I would wonder if a late hit out of bounds on 4th down where the runner is out of bounds before the line to gain would result in a first down or turn over on downs then asses the penalty.
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That is actually the example in the NCAA rulebook. Ball turnover then the penalty is assessed.
Then we should suplex every player on the opposing team once the play is whistled dead.
Dont let the rulebook get in the way of us assuming refs made up a call to screw us.
I was at the game, so this confused me. The official called unsportsmanlike conduct on both teams, not a personal foul on Iowa. I figured it was because the DB taunted or said something to Johnson, not because of the hit (which was clearly egregious). Did the announcers talk about this at all?
If they're both post possession, why weren't the two penalties offsetting? Why sequential? I'm still befuddled on that one.